2013年10月31日星期四

IBM certification 000-226 exam training materials

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Exam Code: 000-226
Exam Name: IBM (Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Technical Sales Skills -v2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A customer with a POWERS 520 and a FC #0595 expansion unit wants to upgrade to a
POWER7+720. The customer has TS2900 SCSI-attached tape drive and 20 70GB disk units.
Which elements of the original system can be used in the new system?
A. The TS2900 can be converted to SAS connectivity.
B. The memory DIMMS, if larger than 4GB, can be directly installed.
C. The EC #0595 expansion unit can be converted from HSL-2 to 12X.
D. The 70GB drive data can be migrated using Pack Utilities Maintenance Program in SST.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A POWER7+system managed by IBM i is hosting an IBM i client that requires 24 virtual disks.
What is the minimum host configuration to support the client storage?
A. 2 vSCSIcontrollers 2 Network Server Descriptions
B. 1 vSCSIcontroller 1 Network Server Description
C. 3 vSCSIcontrollers 3 Network Server Descriptions
D. 4 vSCSI controllers 2 Network Server Descriptions
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer would like to share a tape library among multiple partitions to run backups on a
nightly basis, but doesn't have the budget for a fibre switch or dedicated fibre adapters. They need
to be able to have their single fibre adapter available to each partition on a scheduled basis.
What product or feature can help accommodate this requirement?
A. iASP
B. BRMS
C. Media and Storage Extensions
D. Hardware Management Console
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer has a large quantity of LTO-2 media.
The customer would like to be able to read that media, while at the same time acquiring a tape
library which supports hardware encryption.
Which LTO format and attachment method supports these requirements?
A. SAS-attached LTO-5
B. USB-attached LTO-6
C. SCSI-attached LTO-3
D. Fibre-attached LTO-4
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer with a POWERS 520 running IBM i is debating consolidating to a POWER7+770
that is currently only running AIX, or replacing the POWERS with a POWER7+720. The budget is
limited, and the customer SWMA contract is expired.
Which option is the most economical?
A. Transfer the IBM i license to the POWER7+770
B. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and a new IBM i license
C. Purchase a new IBM i license for the POWER7+ 770
D. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and transfer the IBM i license
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-663
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Digital Marketing Optimization Sales Mastery v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What are the two primary benefits for companies using Tealeaf?
A. Marketing placement and IT performance
B. IT performance and data analytics
C. Conversion and retention
D. Data analytics and retention
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which marketing channel does IBM Impression Attribution primarily influence?
A. Email marketing
B. Display advertising
C. Social media
D. Mobile channels
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www-03.ibm.com/software/products/us/en/impression-attribution/

NO.3 What is one benefit listed in the value proposition for the DMO solution's customer profiles
(LIVE Profiles)?
A. Instant insight into opt-in permissions
B. Provide a complete picture of customer interactions
C. Detailed history of a customer's word-of-mouth activity
D. Ability to analyze customer sentiment and opinions
Answer: B

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NO.4 The most persuading method to sell Tealeaf to prospects is:
A. Differentiate Tealeaf from competitors
B. Tell Tealeaf customer stories
C. Tell prospects about the benefits of Tealeaf
D. Sell products at a discounted price
Answer: B

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NO.5 The products in CBA Suite consists of all the following except:
A. cxReveal
B. cxView
C. cxResults
D. cxOverstat
E. cxImpact
Answer: A,C

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Reference:http://www-03.ibm.com/software/products/us/en/customer-behavior-analysis/

NO.6 What are some of the primary products involved in the DMO solution's ability to deliver
compelling personalization?
A. IBM Lifecycle and IBM AdTarget
B. IBM Digital Data Exchange and IBM Impression Attribution
C. IBM Digital Analytics on Premises
D. IBM Marketing Optimization and Interaction History
Answer: A

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NO.7 Name the 3 factors that determine the price of Tealeaf software:
A. Page count, #Tealeaf Users, and Products
B. Products. #Tealeaf Users, and #Units
C. #Units, Page Count and #Tealeaf Users
D. Products. Page Count and #Units
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is IBM Multichannel Analytics designed to help marketers achieve?
A. Push messaging across multiple marketing channels
B. Segmentation of marketing activities across web, mobile and social
C. One-to-one customer interaction across multiple channels
D. Improved insight via incorporation of offline data
Answer: C

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NO.9 When it comes to DMO's digital marketing execution, what are some of the key capabilities?
A. Strategic planning and budgeting
B. Product recommendations and email targeting
C. Measuring customer interaction across their lifecycle
D. Generating a pipeline of qualified leads
Answer: B

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NO.10 What market factors is this target audience looking to address with the DMO solution?
A. Data security
B. Privacy concerns
C. Just-In-Time inventory
D. Data explosion and social media
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-455
Exam Name: IBM (High Volume Storage Fundamentals V3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which type of drive would be the most cost effective for tier 3 level data?
A. Nearline SAS
B. SSD
C. Fibre Channel
D. SCSI
Answer: A

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NO.2 On Monday, Wednesday and Friday a customer completes a backup of only the files that are
changed from the previous full backup.
This is referred to as what type of backup?
A. incremental backup
B. differential backup
C. full backup
D. partial file backup
Answer: D

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NO.3 A web based company has an online product catalog. During certain times of the year, there
are peaks that stress the catalog database. The database is easily restored from DVD if corrupted.
To speed up response time, what RAID level would provide improved performance and maximum
capacity?
A. RAIDU
B. RAID 10
C. RAID5
D. RAID6
Answer: A

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NO.4 A sales representative has been meeting with the IT Director, and discussing the small
footprint and capacity of the DCS3700 and how this solution would allow them to add the needed
capacity in a very small footprint. The IT Director has agreed to purchase the DCS3700 if the IT staff
can perform day-to-day management of the new storage solution without extensive training.
What tool would be used to demonstrate the management capabilities of the DCS3700?
A. Capacity Magic
B. Disk Magic
C. DDP Calculator Tool
D. Storage Manager/Simulator
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer is using an aging EMO DMX and is running out of floor space in their data center.
They are a loyal EMO customer but the 010 is willing to have a quick discussion with IBM.
What IBM storage efficiency technologies should be discussed to address their floor space issue?
A. FlashCopy and replication
B. tape automation and LTO tape
C. storage virtualization and thin provisioning
D. manual tiring and external virtualization
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer has a large campus facility and needs to connect storage in two different buildings
that are 1 km apart. Which of the following cables would be used?
A. SAS
B. SCSI
C. Single-mode fiber
D. Multi-mode fiber
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which application would the technical specialist recommend for an application specific
point-intime copy?
A. IBM Systems Director
B. Tivoli Storage Manager
C. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center
D. Tivoli StorageFlashCopyManager
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer is in need of archiving a great amount of medical records for a government
research project. These records are of patients, diseases, treatments and results. These records will
be built over the term of 5 years and need to be archived for 20 years.
What would be the best solution to store these records and provide maximum and efficient record
access?
A. Tape Encryption
B. Tivoli Key Lifecycle Manager
C. Linear Tape File System
D. Tivoli Endpoint Manager
Answer: C

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NO.9 Based on the LTO standard, what is the published data compression rate of LTO-6?
A. 2.0:1
B. 2.5:1
C. 3.5:1
D. 5.0:1
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which IBM resource would a Business Partner without access to lab equipment use to provide
a client proof of concept?
A. IBM Innovation Center
B. IBM Techline Pre-sales Support
C. IBM Competeline
D. IBM PartnerWorld
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-S01
Exam Name: HP (HP AssetCenter v5 x Software Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What three IT Asset Management best practices are incorporated within AssetCenter? Select THREE.
A. Network Management
B. Service Management
C. Contract Management
D. Identity Management E. Asset Tracking
F. Procurement Management
Answer: CEF

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NO.2 AssetCenter enables your organization to _______. Select THREE.
A. Define, optimize, and track specific business processes of an organization
B. Effectively manage documents within the enterprise
C. Secure and protect your employee identitiesSecure and protect your employee? identities
D. Manage an enterprise portfolio, which includes assets, contracts, inventory, and business data
important for achieving the business objective of an organization
E. Empower employees to make educated business decisions
Answer: ADE

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NO.3 What two tests must be completed before deployment of the AssetCenter application into a production
environment? Select TWO.
A. Performance tests
B. Consistency tests
C. No tests are required
D. Functional tests
Answer: AD

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NO.4 Which activities or utilities are provided to help control costs within the enterprise?
A. Ability to manage ITSM activities within the enterprise
B. Ability to manage the database
C. Ability to manage software license compliance and entitlement
D. Ability to manage an enterprise IT topology
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are three types of filters that AssetCenter offers to enable the user to display their selected data?
Select THREE.
A. Query filter
B. High-pass filter
C. Universal filter
D. Standard filter
E. Linear filter
F. Simple filter
Answer: ADF

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NO.6 Which three technologies are used within AssetCenter? Select THREE.
A. RDBMS
B. JavaScript
C. AQL
D. Cypress Basic
E. XML
F. C++
Answer: ACD

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NO.7 What four modules exist within AssetCenter? Select FOUR.
A. Portfolio Module
B. Request Module
C. Identity Module
D. Discovery Module
E. Procurement Module
F. Financials Module
G. Contract Module
Answer: AEFG

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NO.8 When can the Archival function of AssetCenter be enabled?
A. Only before creating the database
B. Only after creating the database
C. Both before and after creating the database
D. There is no Archival function
Answer: C

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NO.9 What four common data tables exist within the Portfolio module? Select FOUR.
A. Locations
B. Employees and departments
C. Contracts
D. Expense lines
E. Models
F. Natures
Answer: ABEF

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NO.10 Which report software provides out-of-the-box AssetCenter reports?
A. Actuate
B. Crystal Decisions
C. Crystal Reports
D. Cognos
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-M19
Exam Name: HP (HP Virtual User Generator Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is used, during the debugging process that will pause execution at a specific point in the
script?
A.Step button
B.Compile button
C.Execution Arrow button
D.Toggle Breakpoint button
Correct:D

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NO.2 Where do you define an Auto Correlation rule?
A.Test settings
B.General options
C.Run-time settings
D.Recording options
Correct:D

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NO.3 You want to emulate a call center for an airline. All representatives login in the morning, perform
their business processes, and log out at night. In one day, a representative will Create 40 flight
reservations, Modify 10 flight reservations, and Search for 20 flight reservations. A representative
cannot perform a Modify without performing a Search first. Which run logic would satisfy the load
testing goal?
A.Create - 67% Search - 16% Block0 - 17% Search Modify
B.Create - 57% Search - 29% Block0 - 14% Search Modify
C.Create - 57% Search - 29% Modify - 14%
D.Create - 67% Search - 16% Modify - 17%
Correct:A

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NO.4 You want to have each step in your script measured as a transaction in the Controller and not
shown in the Replay Log in VuGen. How can you accomplish this?
A.enable the automatic transaction in the Run-time settings
B.manually add transactions to each step from the Tree view
C.add a transaction to each page, using the transactions sub-task
D.select the option from the Tools menu to add transaction to each step in the Script view
Correct:A

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NO.5 Which section in a VuGen script is executed only one time, during Vuser initialization?
A.login
B.action
C.vuser_init
D.vuser_end
Correct:C

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NO.6 For debugging purposes, you would like to show a browser during replay. Where do you enable
this option?
A.General options
B.Playback options
C.Run-time settings
D.Recording options
Correct:A

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NO.7 What is the recommended Logging Run-time setting when playing back a script prior to manual
correlation?
A.Standard
B.Disable Logging
C.Extended -> Parameter Substitution
D.Extended -> Data Returned by Server
Correct:D

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NO.8 You want to apply Script A Run-time settings, parameters, extra files, and actions to Script B.
How can this be accomplished?
A.save Script A script as a template, then apply the template to Script B
B.export Script A settings to a .cor file, then import the settings to Script B
C.select the option to create a new Vuser script from, then, select Script A
D.copy the .ext file located in Script A main directory to Script B main directory
Correct:A

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NO.9 You have created several new Auto Correlation rules. A new tester on your team is preparing to
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A.You do not need to do anything. Auto Correlation rules are global and are available to all testers using
the same Controller machine.
B.Under the File menu, you select Zip Operations, then export to a zip file. You have the new tester import
the file into his script.
C.The Auto Correlation rules are saved in the script main folder. You create a share so the other tester
has access to the script main folder.
D.You export the Auto Correlation rules to a .cor file, and then have the new team member import the .cor
file into his Auto Correlation rules.
Correct:D

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NO.10 You want to have your script define a different e-mail address to each user during a registration
process for an e-commerce site, using the following format: testing99999@hp.com. Your script
will execute a maximum of 50 iterations. How can this be accomplished?
A.define a file parameter, start at 1, block size per Vuser: 50, number format: testing%05d@hp.com
B.define a unique number parameter, start at 1, block size per Vuser: 50, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
C.define a random number parameter, minimum number: 1, maximum number: 99999, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
D.define a sequential number parameter, minimum number: 1, maximum number 999, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
Correct:B

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Exam Code: HP0-J12
Exam Name: HP (Supporting ESL E-Series and EML E-Series Libraries)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What does the cabinet controller assembly of an ESL E-Series tape library provide a SCSI interface
to?
A.tape devices
B.library robotics
C.management interface card
D.e2400-160 Interface Controller
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which tape device attribute does the ESL E-Series tape library Interface Manager use to determine
the physical location of each tape drive in the library?
A.bus number
B.SCSI address
C.serial number
D.drive slot position
Answer: C

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which item number represents the host Fibre Channel connections?
A.4
B.6
C.9
D.10
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are advantages of using Secure Manager EML? (Select two.)
A.It allows library partitioning.
B.Management of direct backup is allowed.
C.It provides faster access to tape devices.
D.Device level mapping is easily configured.
E.User access management is easily configured.
Answer: AD

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NO.5 Which scheme is used in the Command Line Interface for drive and slot numbers in ESL E-Series
tape libraries?
A.0 based
B.1 based
C.2 based
D.Hex based
Answer: B

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NO.6 What can be connected using the vacant Ethernet port on the right side of the cabinet controller in an
ESL E-Series tape library?
A.an external LAN
B.cluster controllers
C.interface management card
D.Fibre Channel interface controllers
Answer: A

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the maximum supported number of drives that can be installed in a CLM configuration?
A.40
B.44
C.60
D.64
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is important to remember when changing from Manual to Automatic mode of the Interface
Manager of an ESL E-Series tape library?
A.All drives must be taken offline.
B.Fibre Channel cables must be unplugged.
C.Interface Controllers must be powered off first.
D.Any customizations created in Manual mode will be lost.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which statement about an EML E-Series library is correct?
A.It allows serverless backup with only a few configuration steps if a Secure Manager license is installed.
B.The initial configuration can be done over the front panel, Command View TL or the serial port on the
robotics controller using CLI.
C.It is fully compliant with the Storage Management Initiative Specifications (SMI-S) and can be
configured with HP Storage Essentials.
D.It bridges the capabilities and features between the business-class HP StorageWorks MSL Series and
enterprise-class ESL E-Series tape libraries.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library component (used to carry data cartridges to a secondary cabinet) is
shown in the figure?
A.CLM arm
B.CLM controller
C.picker assembly
D.cartridge transfer robot
Answer: A

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library configuration is shown in the Operator Control Panel Library screen?
A.last cabinet
B.primary cabinet
C.secondary cabinet
D.stand-alone cabinet
Answer: B

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
What does Number 2 on the exhibit represent?
A.x axis motor
B.y axis motor
C.optical scanner
D.home position sensor
Answer: B

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NO.13 What are possible causes of inventory failure in ESL E-Series tape libraries? (Select two.)
A.The library has a drive failure.
B.One of the clusters is disconnected.
C.The library front is facing bright sunlight.
D.Unapproved bar code labels are being used.
E.The Interface Controller is disconnected from the Fibre Channel switch.
Answer: CD

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NO.14 Which HP document provides the most current, supported configurations for Enterprise class libraries
in a SAN environment?
A.Service Guide
B.SAN Design Guide
C.EBS Compatibility Matrix
D.training course documentation
Answer: C

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NO.15 For which connection, other than the cabinet controller, is the I2C network cable used in ESL E-Series
tape libraries?
A.external LANs
B.cluster controllers
C.interface management cards
D.Fibre Channel interface controllers
Answer: B

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NO.16 What are the main considerations when choosing a location for an EML E-Series tape library? (Select
three.)
A.floor space
B.room height
C.power requirements
D.lighting requirements
E.grounding requirements
F.distance to disk storage
Answer: ACE

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NO.17 How many cartridge slots can be used in an 8U drive expansion module mounted at the bottom of an
EML E-Series library?
A.48
B.87
C.94
D.103
Answer: B

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library component does the exhibit display?
A.cluster controller
B.cabinet controller
C.Interface Manager
D.Interface Controller
Answer: C

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NO.19 What can you do to speed up the power-on process while troubleshooting an EML 71e library?
A.Remove all media from the library.
B.Power-on the library with the load port door open.
C.Disable the auto audit, remembering to re-enable it and reboot the library before leaving the customer
site.
D.Configure inventory mode to bar code labels not required, remembering to reset bar code labels
required before leaving the customer site.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is the purpose of the Stop button on the Operator Control Panel of ESL E-Series tape libraries?
A.to halt the robotics
B.to restart the library
C.to shut down the library
D.to pause a running backup process
Answer: A

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NO.21 What is reported by the LP/PNL sensor of an ESL E-Series tape library?
A.library door status
B.x-axis motor position
C.y-axis motor position
D.magazines and load ports status
Answer: D

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NO.22 What is the maximum cartridge slot count in an EML E-Series library?
A.325
B.470
C.505
D.595
Answer: C

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NO.23 What is the hard wired IP address of the Interface Manager card in an EML E-Series tape library on the
private network?
A.1.1.1.1
B.10.0.0.1
C.192.168.2.1
D.155.155.155.1
Answer: C

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NO.24 What must be configured in CommandView TL when manually adding an ESL E-Series library?
A.library IP address
B.library serial number
C.tape drive and robot SCSI IDs
D.Interface Manager user name and password
Answer: A

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NO.25 Click the Exhibit button.
Which component is connected to port E1 of the cluster controller if it is in drive cluster 0 of an ESL
E-Series tape library?
A.cabinet controller
B.Interface Controller
C.lower cluster controller
D.Interface Manager card
Tape Library
Answer: A

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NO.26 With which management specification does the Command View TL Provider comply?
A.Direct Management Initiative (DMI)
B.Advanced Remote Management (ARM)
C.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
D.Storage Management Initiative Specification (SMI-S)
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which parts of the Extended Tape Library Architecture are SNIA compliant and support the Storage
Management Initiative Specifications (SMI-S)? (Select two.)
A.Secure Manager
B.Interface Manager
C.Interface Controller
D.Robotics Controller
E.Command View Tape Library
Answer: BE

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NO.28 How often is the CommandView TL Health Summary screen updated?
A.every 30 seconds
B.at 15-minute intervals
C.whenever the library status changes
D.configurable to any value up to 900 seconds
Answer: C

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NO.29 What are the standard cabling requirements for the Interface Manager card of an EML E-Series tape
library?
A.4 x Ethernet to interface controllers, 1 x Ethernet to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
B.4 x Ethernet to interface controllers, 1 x Fibre Channel to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
C.4 x Fibre Channel to interface controllers, 1 x Ethernet to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
D.4 x Fibre Channel to interface controllers, 1 x Fibre Channel to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
Answer: A

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NO.30 When is Lock Element Addressing used in the ESL E-Series library?
A.with multiple tape drive clusters
B.as an electronic lock of the access doors
C.when multiple Interface Controllers are used
D.for cross-linked libraries with three or more cabinets
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-311
Exam Name: HP (HP OpenView TeMIP)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 An event can be lost in TeMIP if _______. Select TWO.
A.no GetEvent has been issued for the managed object of this event
B.there is no Real Time View monitoring the managed object of this event
C.a Low Level Filter discarded this event
D.the connection with the Oracle database has been lost
E.a security profile has blocked the collection of this event
Answer:A C

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NO.2 The Notify is a directive of the _______ class and is handled by the _______ Management Module.
A.notification, Notification FM
B.domain, Domain FM
C.domain, Notification FM
D.entity, Notification FM
Answer:C

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NO.3 Based on directive cascading, what is the alarm collection chain?
A.RESUME OC + NOTIFY DOMAIN + GETEVENT entity
B.CREATE AO+ GETEVENT entity
C.CREATE entity + DISPATCH event + LISTEN event
D.ENABLE OC
Answer:A

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NO.4 The Low Level Filters are child classes of the _______ global class and handled by the _______
Management Module.
A.Operation Context, Alarm Handling FM
B.Domain, Alarms FM
C.MCC, Event Filtering FM
D.TeMIP, Framework FM
Answer:C

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NO.5 What is the directive that enables the reception of events corresponding to a specific entity?
A.notify
B.getevent
C.summarize
D.subscribe
Answer:B

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Exam Code: HP0-085
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Desiging HP Superdome Server Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 201 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which statements are true? (Select two.)
A.Processors of different speeds can be mixed in the same cell.
B.Superdome servers support mixing chipsets if they are in different cells.
C.An HP Superdome server can support only one type of chipset at a time.
D.Intel Itanium 2 and mx2 processors can be mixed in the same Superdome server.
E.Processors on the same cell board can be running different firmware versions if they are in separate
hard partitions (nPars).
Correct:C D

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NO.2 How many HP Superdome servers can you manage with one Support Management Station
(SMS)?
A.8
B.16
C.24
D.32
Correct:B

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NO.3 How should memory be loaded on an sx2000-based Superdome server to obtain best
performance?
A.Use double data rate (DDR) DIMMs.
B.Populate one full quadrant at a time.
C.Populate the same echelons on each of the four quadrants.
D.Populate the A echelons on each of the cells, then populate the B echelons.
Correct:C

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NO.4 Which configuration rule is true for an HP Integrity Superdome cell board memory?
A.DIMMS must all be the same size.
B.Memory must be added all at one time.
C.Individual DIMMS must be loaded in pairs.
D.Mixing DIMM size is allowed with some restrictions.
Correct:D

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NO.5 Which memory configuration does HP recommend for an sx1000 Superdome customer who
wants the most availability?
A.16 DIMMS (eight ranks)
B.32 DIMMS (sixteen ranks)
C.minimum of 4 DIMMS (two ranks)
D.minimum of 8 DIMMS (four ranks)
Correct:C

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NO.6 Which resources are required for an nPar I/O chassis in an sx2000 Superdome server? (Select
two.)
A.Tape drive
B.Core I/O card
C.Instant Capacity (iCAP) cell
D.Card connected to boot media
E.Card connected to removable media
Correct:D E

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NO.7 How does Pellston technology contribute to reliability and high availability of Montecito
processors?
A.It increases the bandwidth of the processor bus.
B.It removes hard cache errors by disabling the affected Level 3 (L3) cache line.
C.It measures processor power consumption and deactivates processors with irregular usage.
D.It measures processor power consumption and increases processor frequency for processors that
serve particular applications.
Correct:B

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NO.8 What are the single points of failure in an sx1000 Superdome server? (Select two.)
A.I/O chassis
B.sx2000 chipset
C.crossbar backplane
D.power monitor module
E.Management Processor (MP)
Correct:C D

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NO.9 Which layered applications are included in the Enterprise Operating Environment? (Select two.)
A.Online JFS
B.Mirrordisk/UX
C.Data Protector
D.Workload Manager (WLM)
E.Enterprise Cluster Toolkit
Correct:A B

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NO.10 Which functions does the Support Management Station (SMS) support? (Select two.)
A.activates Instant Capacity (iCAP)
B.displays a log of events for troubleshooting
C.is a console to monitor Superdome servers
D.sets service level objectives (SLOs) for partitions
E.monitors resource usage and allocate resources for partitions
Correct:B C

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NO.11 What information does a Guardian Service Processor (GSP) or Management Processor (MP)
provide about an HP Superdome server? (Select two.)
A.event logs
B.console logs
C.server power usage
D.processor utilization percentages
E.service level objectives (SLOs) for each partition
Correct:A B

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NO.12 Which business values does HP Workload Manager (WLM) provide by allowing customers to
set service level objectives (SLOs)? (Select two.)
A.increase performance
B.efficient resource utilization
C.activate spare processor capacity
D.run multiple workloads on one system
E.maximum system uptime and availability
Correct:B D

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NO.13 How does Global Shared Memory increase the performance of an sx2000 Superdome server?
A.provides a redundant global clock source
B.provides console functionality for each cell in a Superdome server
C.provides direct remote access to the cell through the Management Processor (MP)
D.shifts networking between partitions to the backplane instead of through I/O subsystems
Correct:D

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NO.14 Which devices does HP recommend for each hard partition? (Select two.)
A.DAT
B.DLT
C.LTO
D.DVD
E.CD-ROM
Correct:A D

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NO.15 Which rule governs how you should load I/O cards in the IOX cabinet?
A.Fill the I/O chassis completely before installing I/O cards in the IOX cabinet.
B.After you have filled a spare I/O chassis, install redundant I/O devices in the IOX cabinet.
C.For high-availability installations, redundant I/O cards should be installed in the IOX cabinet.
D.Distribute I/O cards evenly between the I/O chassis and the IOX cabinet to maximize bandwidth.
Correct:A

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NO.16 Which component of Superdome 32-way server is omitted from the Superdome16-way server's
backplane assembly?
A.crossbar links
B.local crossbar communication links
C.cell board connectors for cells 4 through 7
D.cell board connectors for cells 0 through 3
Correct:C

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NO.17 In an sx2000 HP Superdome Server, what is the minimum number of DIMMs you need to install
to provide high availability in the memory subsystem?
A.two per cell
B.four per cell
C.eight per cell
D.sixteen per cell
Correct:C

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NO.18 Which HP Superdome servers support the PCI-X I/O chassis? (Select two.)
A.PA-8700
B.PA-8800
C.PA-9000
D.Itanium 2
E.PA-8600
Correct:B D

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NO.19 How can you set how much memory in an HP Superdome is cell local memory, and how much is
interleaved memory? (Select two.)
A.nPar commands
B.HP OpenView Operations
C.HP Partition Manager (parmgr)
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
E.These values are configured at the factory and cannot be changed without changing cell boards.
Correct:A C

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NO.20 The best performance is achieved when partitions have how many cells? (Select two.)
A.two
B.three
C.four
D.five
E.six
Correct:A C

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Exam Code: HP0-J17
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing the HP StorageWorks EVA4400)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 When is the first disk group (default disk group) created?
A. after storage system initialization
B. during the initialization of the storage system
C. during the installation of Command View EVA
D. manually, before the system can be initialized
Answer: B

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NO.2 When can you start to create the first Vdisk using Command View EVA?
A. after a host is created
B. after storage system initialization
C. after multipath software is activated
D. during the storage system initialization
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which user group membership enables the user to access Command View EVA?
A. EVA Admin
B. HP Manager
C. SAN Administrator
D. HP Storage Admin
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which SMB customer business needs are best addressed by the EVA4400?
A. growing budgets, high availability, rapid data growth
B. shrinking budgets, disaster tolerance, rapid data growth
C. easy configuration, non-stop performance, growing budgets
D. ease of management, shrinking budgets, non-stop performance
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is an interconnect requirement for the EVA4400?
A. The SAN switch must run at 2Gb/s or greater.
B. All components in the SAN must run at 4Gb/s.
C. The direct connected switch must run at 4Gb/s.
D. All components in the SAN must run at 2Gb/s or greater.
Answer: A

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NO.6 How does the name of an uninitialized system show in Command View EVA?
A. serial number
B. uninitialized system
C. WWN of the storage system
D. WWN of FFFF-FFFF-FFFF-FFFF
Answer: C

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NO.7 Where must the multipath software be installed to enable multipathing?
A. on all hosts in the SAN
B. on the storage system
C. on the dedicated management server
D. on all hosts that require multipath access to the EVA
Answer: D

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NO.8 What can you use to provide a Fibre Channel SAN extension over an IP network in an EVA4400 CA
solution?
A. MPX110 IP Distance Gateway
B. IP connector on the controllers
C. only an 8Gb Fibre Channel switch
D. any Fibre Channel switch, provided it has an extended fabric license
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which EVA solution provides the best level of site disaster tolerance?
A. Snapclone
B. Business Copy
C. Continuous Access
D. Replication Solutions Manager
Answer: C

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NO.10 What does the Dynamic Capacity Management (DCM) of an EVA storage system provide?
A. maximum capacity utilization to the EVA
B. load balancing on the host ports of an EVA
C. optimized bandwidth utilization during replication
D. minimized space requirement during rebuild operation
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-J23
Exam Name: HP (Implementing MSA Storage Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 77 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Your customer wants to share data among many servers in their LAN.
Which storage solution is most suitable for this customer?
A.Network Attached Storage
B.Internet SCSI
C.Storage Area Network
D.Fibre Channel over IP
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 Which component enables access to block storage on a Fibre Channel SAN across an
Ethernet network?
A.Fibre Channel Switch
B.Ethernet Switch
C.iSCSI to Fibre Channel bridge
D.FC-IP gateway connector
ANSWER: C

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NO.3 Which action is performed by MultiPath I/O if the Device Specific Module (DSM) returns
an inactive path to the system?
A.The automatic load balancing policy is disabled.
B.Load balancing policy is reduced by this path.
C.A path failover is initiated.
D.The inactive path is verified again.
ty
ANSWER: C

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NO.4 Click the Task button. Click on the area where a post configuration successful (green) message would
appear.
Answer:

NO.5 Which disk drive technology is best suited to sequential-access data and secondary storage
applications within an MSA2000 Family array system?
A.SCSI
B.SAS
C.FATA
D.SATA
E.FC SCSI
ANSWER: D

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of hosts that can be connected to an MSA2012fc?
A.16
B.32
C.64
D.128
ANSWER: C

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NO.7 How many ports are available on an HP StorageWorks 4/32 SAN switch base system?
A.12
B.16
C.20
D.28
ANSWER: B

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NO.8 Which technologies are used to transmit data over IP networks? (Select two.)
A.FC-over-ATM
B.iSCSI
C.FC-IP
D.ESCON
E.FICON
ANSWER: AE

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NO.9 What are key features of the MSA2012i? (Select three.)
A.support for up to 64 hosts
B.controller-based replication capability
C.support for up to 16 servers
D.snapshot and clone capability
E.automated active/passive failover
F.hardware active/active failover
ANSWER: CDF

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NO.10 Where is the MSA Storage Management Utility web server located?
A.on each of MSA controller modules
B.on the master MSA controller module
C.on the SAN management server
D.on any server connected to the SAN
ANSWER: A

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NO.11 What are benefits of storage consolidation to a customer? (Select two.)
A.regular, mandatory maintenance hours
B.more efficient storage growth
C.higher availability through decentralized storage pools
D.better disk capacity utilization than DAS
E.eliminates the need for a backup
ANSWER: CE

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NO.12 What are high availability features of a SAN? (Select two.)
A.online storage migration
B.backup multiplexing
C.dynamic failover protection
D.LAN-free backup
E.storage server clustering
ANSWER: CE

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NO.13 What is a Recovery Time Objective?
A.maximum duration of data restore per system
B.maximum acceptable time interval for business data unavailability
C.maximum time frame for restoring data of all systems
D.maximum time frame for data loss in case of failure
ANSWER: B

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NO.14 What is the Recovery Point Objective?
A.the amount of data that must be recovered
B.the amount of time the restoration takes for all data
C.the amount of data you can afford to lose
D.the amount of time you can afford to be without the data
ANSWER: C

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NO.15 You are specifying a storage solution for your customer, but the customer has limited skills to configure
the solution. The MSA2012fc has a new feature called Automatic Virtual Disk Creation which will help the
customer configure the array.
What must you ensure when specifying the solution?
A.Only one type of disk (SAS or SATA) is specified.
B.Only SAS drives are specified.
C.The solution is a dual controller solution.
D.A minimum of two disk enclosures is connected.
ANSWER: A

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NO.16 How does the Storage Management Utility distinguish users while they are connected to an MSA2000
Family Modular Smart Array controller?
A.by name of the connected user
B.by IP address of the connected client
C.by WWN of the management host
D.by certificate issued by the Storage Management Utility
ANSWER: B

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NO.17 Which physical or logical storage components can be managed using the HP StorageWorks MSA2000
Family Storage Management Utility? (Select three.)
A.virtual disks
B.disk groups
C.replication groups
D.pre-fetch cache
E.master volumes
F.drive modules
ANSWER: AEF

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NO.18 How many volume copies and snapshots are supported when using an MSA2012i storage array?
A.64 volume copies and 64 snapshots
B.64 volume copies and 128 snapshots
C.128 volume copies and 64 snapshots
D.128 volume copies and 128 snapshots
ANSWER: C

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NO.19 Which data backup features are introduced as part of a SAN? (Select three.)
A.reduction of congestion
B.elimination of single point of failure
C.elimination of database downtime for backup
D.efficient utilization of storage resources
E.reduction of power outage risk in the storage network
F.improvements of backup window
ANSWER: BCE

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
Which function does a Network Storage Router (NSR) provide?
A.backup accelerator for 2Gb SANs
B.two-stage backup capabilities for SAN environments
C.Fibre Channel-to-SCSI bridge
D.data encryption to the tape device
ANSWER: C

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